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I remember something from grad school about how theft is actually treated the same way as taxes in GDP, but I couldn't quickly find a source explaining it.
The idea was that they don't subtract theft from GDP or GNP, because they assume the goods stolen are worth exactly as much to the thief as the victim. Therefor, on net, theft is economically neutral. So dumb.
Wow!!! WTF kind of reasoning is that? The only ones that could possibly reason that way are thieves, themselves, or the thieves’ associates. I guess you could say that the court economists/historians/lawyers/jesters are all cut from the same bolt of cloth. The person owning something only owns it because they thought it was worth more than the money they paid for it, otherwise they wouldn’t have bought it in the first place.
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