11 sats \ 1 reply \ @Rothbardian_fanatic 13 Nov \ parent \ on: Wanted: Critics of Austrian Economics econ
No it doesn’t. Common Law courts are not state driven. Courts of justice came before the state.
Enforced by society in general means enforced by the individuals in that society. No public entity needs exist.
Do you have some reading material about this?
To me it seems ahistorical to suggest that there were widespread courts and property rights systems that existed without either explicit or implicit (i.e. tribal chieftain; religious order; etc) frameworks of state power, but maybe I am just not well read enough on history.
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