Vague memory only, but doesn't this theorem require larger samples than just 25 nodes? You can't make the assumption that it is normally distributed at priori, can you?
In this case, it has more to do with the number of channels. I sample distributions for each channel and then take their sum. This process is repeated 10000 times per plot.
Until the number of channels reaches 30, the distribution looks more 'uniform' than normal.
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Ok got it. Tnx for clarification
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