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I'm definitely not sat farming here (can't in a million years imagine the now-three comments I've made even breaking 40 sats, and that's hardly worth the time I've spent on them for sat-farming). I also don't ever think of adding value or V4V in comments, to be honest. I treat commenting here like I would anywhere -- if I feel like saying something, I say it (and I assume that's the intent of keeping commenting cheap).
As to the actual point, the thing is, I genuinely don't know how the UK handles these things, so while yes, obviously they're not as extreme as some other countries, I don't know what or how their appeals process for a case like this would work, and I try not to assume that just because there's a right to something in the US, that the same one exists even in similar nations.
But you see, I am not assuming American laws extend. How ever I do know our system, the Common Law system derives from the UK. I also, know that the two countries have many, many agreements in business and law. The most important thing to know is both counties require permission to sue the government in most cases. Thus, my question remains.
I appreciate your effort.
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