Taking a step back, I read this statement as, "it is objectively true that value is subjectively defined."

I can imagine a world view in which there is only subjective value. In this case, the universe is happenstance and we only have the illusion of value (maybe kind of like Sartre). However, there's no "Period" at the end of this statement, because without any actual intrinsic value at all, even instrumental value is an illusion. I can also imagine a world view in which all values are objectively true. This is maybe what is alluded to in the last paragraph. It is predicated on the belief of something outside our universe by which we're all dependent. The article argues that most values are subjective as determined by the market, but others might be part of that second category. However, the idea purported here is elusive to me. Am I missing something that makes objective inclusion of the "Period" make more sense?