🤡thread. quick answer: no, it could not, not in the foreseeable future.

The thread drones on and on without actually understanding the basic element of hyperinflation. It claims "hyperinflation is basically the result of poor monetary and fiscal policy, leading to large budget deficits, eventually requiring excessive money printing"

no. no, it is not. sit down, F, start again.

The main cause of hyperinflation is debt denominated in a currency that is not your own, and an inability/openly hostile prevention of acquiring said currency. That is what happened in Weimar germany: war debt in foreign currencies while the other countries closed themselves off to German imports, "leading to large budget deficits, eventually requiring excessive money printing" (yes) but not because of "poor monetary or fiscal policy." That's the cute pretense that the countries in question actually had the power to control their economic fates this way. The hyperinflate precisely because they did, or do, NOT have that power.

Same in Venezuela of Zimbabwe, who have USD-denominated debt, while US sanctions prevent them from gaining currency to service them- The US has debt in USD. At least it still does, now. It will never come into a situation where it can't get access to currency to service it. It can cause inflation by (among other things!) printing USD; it won't hyperinflate.