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How do you explain non productive price speculation where no additional goods are produced?

The point is individual gain for the investor is ALWAYS the goal of capital allocations under a capitalist system.

It may enable greater consumption by the individual as a result but at that point the individual is not actively engaging in capitalism but rather consuming their profits and capital.

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No that's not what I said- you are grossly misrepresenting what I have said . . . again.
Go back and read what I said and think again.

With asset price speculation there are often no additional goods or services provided for anyone else so in that sense it is non productive and does not involve the 'production of the commodities are because other people need and want them'.

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